In the question When can we omit “does” in the question sentence, the OP asked a question, and Invoker answered it, which is fairly straightforward. However, in the answer, he stated that:
We only use does when the subject mentioned in the sentence is he/she/it
Which ignores the very common usage (at least, in my experience) of "does" and "do" for emphasis, as outlined in my comment:
You should note that does is also used for emphasis; consider the following exchange: "She doesn't use the wheels." "Who does use the wheels?" In speech, does would be accompanied by a major pitch movement.
Looking at it now, using emphasis might've made it clearer. In any case, at least another user Mr Wonderful seems to agree.
In any case, Invoker responded with:
Under no circumstances can the phrase Who does use the wheels? be correct, as I mentioned before, the subject in the talk must be a noun
And also with:
Its not
Do I uses the wheels
, itsDo I use the wheels?
The OP did not actually ask for all possible situations where he an use does/do, he asked the diff b/w 2 statements, in other words, how the second sentence was incorrect, talk about incomplete answer you did not include do/does usage with corresponding verbs as well.
Firstly, I'd like to apologise if it seems as though I was personally attacking Invoker - I'll link to this in the comment to give him a chance to respond. Also - yes, I made a mistake, which I should have seen and fixed, but ad hominem attacks aren't helpful and distract from my actual point.
However, I'd like to raise the general issue of identifying our variant of English, since this can make a huge difference in how widely acceptable and applicable our answers are. This isn't necessary in every post, but certainly, when one or more people indicate that they find a particular usage or variant useful, at the very least you should consider dialectal differences. Personally, I know that Australian English is a mess of British and American English, but it's still a lot closer to them than is Indian sub-continental English, which has many grammatical differences at the very least, and likely idiomatic and pragmatic differences.
Now, I'm assuming that location information in profiles is true and correct, and in looking at the OP's they're located in Australia. Invoker is located in India, meaning there are possible issues with this.
I've gone ahead and suggested an edit to the post to incorporate Australian English (as well as British, US and Canadian, since I've been able to verify this) into the answer - while in general, this is frowned upon, because it changes the OP's meaning, I feel that leaving the answer as it is would have been ultimately detrimental.
Any thoughts, questions, or comments on this? How often is dialect/variant an issue? Should we have some kind of guideline around this, to ensure that there's no confusion?