In a recent question about the word elicit in a Forbes article, I supplied the meaning of the word (not its usual one) in a comment, and then remarked to the OP that consulting a single dictionary, especially a "learner's dictionary", wouldn't do for the kinds of texts he was reading, that checking a learner's dictionary and going no farther was like "bringing a knife to a gunfight, as the AmE saying goes".
The comment, along with the definition, was deleted, making subsequent comments in a chain of comments appear to be nonsequiturs.
I want to know what was objectionable or offensive about that comment. On what grounds was it deleted?